Why did the Spanish interbreed with the Indians, while the Northern Europeans did not?

Posted May 17, 2011 9:00 pm  
 

The Spanish interbred with both the Indians of Mexico and of California. Why did the English and other Northern European colonists interbreed with their African slaves but not with American Indians?

a casta painting of a Spanish man, Indian woman, and their child

a casta painting of a Spanish man, an Indian woman, and their child

Was it because the New Englanders arrived as colonizers—with wives—not as conquerors? Was it because they never enslaved the Indians as did the Spaniards? Or was it a cultural difference between Northern and Southern Europeans?

 

 

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